Sample 511 Multi Choice Quiz

Sample 511 Multi Choice Quiz

Name: ____________________________ Date: ________________

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question. Circle A, B, C, or D.

1. When must the OSHA 300A Summary be posted?

A. January 1 through March 31

B. February 1 through April 30

C. March 1 through May 31

D. February 15 through May 15

2. By what date must the OSHA 300A Summary be submitted?

A. January 31

B. February 15

C. March 2

D. April 30

3. What is the purpose of OSHA compliance directives?

A. To establish wage rates

B. To provide consistent enforcement

C. To replace OSHA standards

D. To reduce employer recordkeeping

4. Under the multi-employer concept, which employer creates the hazardous condition?

A. Controlling employer

B. Correcting employer

C. Creating employer

D. Exposing employer

5. In general industry, at what height does fall protection generally apply?

A. 4 feet

B. 6 feet

C. 8 feet

D. 10 feet

6. What is the maximum travel distance to a Class B fire extinguisher?

A. 25 feet

B. 50 feet

C. 75 feet

D. 100 feet

7. What is the maximum travel distance to a Class A fire extinguisher?

A. 25 feet

B. 50 feet

C. 75 feet

D. 100 feet

8. How long does an employer have to contest an OSHA violation?

A. 5 working days

B. 10 working days

C. 15 working days

D. 30 calendar days

9. What does OSHA require an employer to do with each cited violation?

A. Abate every violation

B. Contest every violation

C. Pay the penalty before correcting it

D. Close the worksite immediately

10. How long must an OSHA citation be posted?

A. 1 day

B. 3 days or until abated, whichever is longer

C. 7 days only

D. Until the next inspection

11. What are the three basic stages of an OSHA compliance inspection?

A. Plan, inspect, report

B. Open, walk, close

C. Notify, cite, collect

D. Interview, test, fine

12. Compressed air used for cleaning must be reduced to no more than:

A. 20 psi

B. 25 psi

C. 30 psi

D. 40 psi

13. An opening in a floor that is 2 inches or more is considered a:

A. Gap

B. Trench

C. Hole

D. Pit

14. Which OSHA inspection priority comes first among the options listed?

A. Complaint

B. Severe injury

C. Imminent danger

D. Programmed inspection

15. An exit area that opens to the outside is called the:

A. Exit access

B. Exit route

C. Exit discharge

D. Means of egress

16. What clearance distance is noted for compressed gas cylinders/tanks?

A. 10 feet

B. 15 feet

C. 20 feet

D. 25 feet

17. Where is the OSH Act General Duty Clause found?

A. Section 4(b)(1)

B. Section 5(a)(1)

C. Section 6(a)(2)

D. Section 11(c)(1)

18. An oxygen-deficient atmosphere contains oxygen at what level?

A. Less than 19.5% by volume

B. 19.5% to 23.5% by volume

C. More than 23.5% by volume

D. Exactly 21% by volume

19. Which organization approves and certifies respirators?

A. OSHA

B. NIOSH

C. EPA

D. ANSI

20. For voltages to ground of 50 kV or less, how far must an unqualified person remain from an unguarded energized overhead line?

A. 4 feet

B. 6 feet

C. 10 feet

D. 20 feet

21. Which part of an exit route is the travel path that leads to an exit?

A. Exit access

B. Exit

C. Exit discharge

D. Safe area

22. Who may provide powered industrial truck operator training and evaluation?

A. Any experienced operator

B. The truck manufacturer only

C. The employer or the employer's designee

D. The employee being trained

23. At least how often must a powered industrial truck operator be evaluated?

A. Every year

B. Every 3 years

C. Every 5 years

D. Only after an incident

24. Which three methods safeguard employees from machine hazards?

A. Devices, guards, and location

B. PPE, warning signs, and training only

C. Lockout, ventilation, and housekeeping

D. Alarms, labels, and inspections

25. What is the point of operation on a machine?

A. The location of the emergency stop button

B. Where the stock meets the machine

C. The area where the operator stands

D. The location of the power disconnect

26. Which publication addresses in-plant handling and storage of compressed gases?

A. NFPA 10

B. CGA Pamphlet P-1-1965

C. ANSI Z87.1

D. OSHA 300A

27. Which description correctly defines a confined space?

A. Any area below ground level

B. Any room with one doorway

C. A space large enough to enter and work, with limited entry or exit, and not designed for continuous occupancy

D. Any space that contains a hazardous material

28. An employer-designated person who identifies existing and predictable hazards and has authority to correct them is a:

A. Competent person

B. Authorized employee

C. Safety committee member

D. Controlling employer

29. What must an employer perform to properly select personal protective equipment?

A. A job rotation plan

B. A hazard assessment

C. A medical evaluation for every employee

D. A recordkeeping audit

30. How often must employees involved in a process covered by process safety management receive refresher training?

A. Every year

B. Every 2 years

C. At least every 3 years

D. Every 5 years

31. What work is covered by the lockout/tagout standard?

A. Servicing and maintenance of machines and equipment

B. Routine office work

C. New-hire orientation only

D. All normal production operations

32. Under OSHA's multi-employer policy, which employer has general supervisory authority over the worksite and may have responsibility to correct hazards?

A. Creating employer

B. Exposing employer

C. Correcting employer

D. Controlling employer

33. After welding or cutting is completed, how long must a required fire watch remain?

A. 10 minutes

B. At least 30 minutes

C. 1 hour

D. Until the next shift

34. What written program is required for employees with occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials?

A. Emergency action plan

B. Hazard communication program

C. Exposure control plan

D. Respiratory protection program

35. What part of a bloodborne pathogens exposure control plan identifies job classifications and tasks in which occupational exposure may occur?

A. Exposure determination

B. Incident investigation

C. Medical surveillance

D. Return-to-work evaluation

36. How often must the employer inspect each energy-control procedure under lockout/tagout?

A. Monthly

B. At least annually

C. Every 3 years

D. Only after an injury

Answer Key

Detailed Answer Explanations

Use this section after completing the test. Each correct answer includes an explanation.

1. When must the OSHA 300A Summary be posted?

Correct answer: B. February 1 through April 30

B. February 1 through April 30 — Correct. The annual OSHA 300A Summary is posted from February 1 through April 30 for the prior calendar year.

2. By what date must the OSHA 300A Summary be submitted?

Correct answer: C. March 2

C. March 2 — Correct. March 2 is the annual OSHA injury and illness data submission deadline for establishments required to submit.

3. What is the purpose of OSHA compliance directives?

Correct answer: B. To provide consistent enforcement

B. To provide consistent enforcement — Correct. OSHA compliance directives provide enforcement policy and procedures so requirements are applied consistently in the field.

4. Under the multi-employer concept, which employer creates the hazardous condition?

Correct answer: C. Creating employer

C. Creating employer — Correct. The creating employer is the employer that caused or created the hazardous condition.

5. In general industry, at what height does fall protection generally apply?

Correct answer: A. 4 feet

A. 4 feet — Correct. The general-industry walking-working surfaces rule generally protects employees at unprotected sides and edges 4 feet or more above a lower level.

6. What is the maximum travel distance to a Class B fire extinguisher?

Correct answer: B. 50 feet

B. 50 feet — Correct. The maximum travel distance for the Class B extinguisher question is 50 feet.

7. What is the maximum travel distance to a Class A fire extinguisher?

Correct answer: C. 75 feet

C. 75 feet — Correct. The maximum travel distance for the Class A extinguisher question is 75 feet.

8. How long does an employer have to contest an OSHA violation?

Correct answer: C. 15 working days

C. 15 working days — Correct. An employer has 15 working days after receiving the citation and proposed penalty to notify OSHA that it intends to contest.

9. What does OSHA require an employer to do with each cited violation?

Correct answer: A. Abate every violation

A. Abate every violation — Correct. A cited hazard must be corrected, or abated, by the required abatement date unless the citation is successfully contested or otherwise modified.

10. How long must an OSHA citation be posted?

Correct answer: B. 3 days or until abated, whichever is longer

B. 3 days or until abated, whichever is longer — Correct. The citation must remain posted for 3 working days or until the violation is corrected, whichever period is longer.

11. What are the three basic stages of an OSHA compliance inspection?

Correct answer: B. Open, walk, close

B. Open, walk, close — Correct. Remember the sequence as opening conference, walkaround inspection, and closing conference.

12. Compressed air used for cleaning must be reduced to no more than:

Correct answer: C. 30 psi

C. 30 psi — Correct. Compressed air used for cleaning must be reduced to less than 30 psi and used with effective chip guarding and appropriate PPE.

13. An opening in a floor that is 2 inches or more is considered a:

Correct answer: C. Hole

C. Hole — Correct. A floor opening 2 inches or more in its least dimension is defined as a hole.

14. Which OSHA inspection priority comes first among the options listed?

Correct answer: C. Imminent danger

C. Imminent danger — Correct. Imminent-danger situations receive the highest OSHA inspection priority because death or serious physical harm could occur immediately.

15. An exit area that opens to the outside is called the:

Correct answer: C. Exit discharge

C. Exit discharge — Correct. Exit discharge is the part of the exit route that leads directly outside or to a safe area.

16. What clearance distance is noted for compressed gas cylinders/tanks?

Correct answer: C. 20 feet

C. 20 feet — Correct. The required separation or clearance distance for the compressed-gas cylinder or tank question is 20 feet.

17. Where is the OSH Act General Duty Clause found?

Correct answer: B. Section 5(a)(1)

B. Section 5(a)(1) — Correct. Section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act is the General Duty Clause. It requires employers to furnish employment and a place of employment free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm.

18. An oxygen-deficient atmosphere contains oxygen at what level?

Correct answer: A. Less than 19.5% by volume

A. Less than 19.5% by volume — Correct. An atmosphere with less than 19.5% oxygen by volume is oxygen-deficient and is a hazardous atmosphere for permit-space entry.

19. Which organization approves and certifies respirators?

Correct answer: B. NIOSH

B. NIOSH — Correct. NIOSH approves and certifies respirators; OSHA sets and enforces workplace respiratory-protection requirements.

20. For voltages to ground of 50 kV or less, how far must an unqualified person remain from an unguarded energized overhead line?

Correct answer: C. 10 feet

C. 10 feet — Correct. An unqualified person and any conductive object they may contact must remain at least 10 feet from an unguarded energized overhead line at 50 kV or less.

21. Which part of an exit route is the travel path that leads to an exit?

Correct answer: A. Exit access

A. Exit access — Correct. Exit access is the portion of an exit route that leads to an exit.

22. Who may provide powered industrial truck operator training and evaluation?

Correct answer: C. The employer or the employer's designee

C. The employer or the employer's designee — Correct. The employer is responsible for providing operator training and evaluation and may designate a qualified person to perform it.

23. At least how often must a powered industrial truck operator be evaluated?

Correct answer: B. Every 3 years

B. Every 3 years — Correct. Each powered industrial truck operator must be evaluated at least once every three years; refresher training or evaluation may also be required sooner when conditions warrant it.

24. Which three methods safeguard employees from machine hazards?

Correct answer: A. Devices, guards, and location

A. Devices, guards, and location — Correct. Machine hazards are controlled through safeguarding devices, guards, and proper location.

25. What is the point of operation on a machine?

Correct answer: B. Where the stock meets the machine

B. Where the stock meets the machine — Correct. The point of operation is where the machine performs work on the stock.

26. Which publication addresses in-plant handling and storage of compressed gases?

Correct answer: B. CGA Pamphlet P-1-1965

B. CGA Pamphlet P-1-1965 — Correct. CGA Pamphlet P-1-1965 addresses the safe in-plant handling, storage, and use of compressed gases.

27. Which description correctly defines a confined space?

Correct answer: C. A space large enough to enter and work, with limited entry or exit, and not designed for continuous occupancy

C. A space large enough to enter and work, with limited entry or exit, and not designed for continuous occupancy — Correct. A confined space has all three defining characteristics: it can be entered and worked in, has limited means of entry or exit, and is not designed for continuous occupancy.

28. An employer-designated person who identifies existing and predictable hazards and has authority to correct them is a:

Correct answer: A. Competent person

A. Competent person — Correct. A competent person is designated by the employer, can identify existing and predictable hazards, and has authority to take prompt corrective measures.

29. What must an employer perform to properly select personal protective equipment?

Correct answer: B. A hazard assessment

B. A hazard assessment — Correct. The employer must assess the workplace to determine hazards present or likely to be present that require PPE.

30. How often must employees involved in a process covered by process safety management receive refresher training?

Correct answer: C. At least every 3 years

C. At least every 3 years — Correct. Process safety management requires initial training and refresher training at least every three years, with more frequent training if needed.

31. What work is covered by the lockout/tagout standard?

Correct answer: A. Servicing and maintenance of machines and equipment

A. Servicing and maintenance of machines and equipment — Correct. Lockout/tagout applies to servicing and maintenance when unexpected energization, startup, or release of stored energy could cause injury.

32. Under OSHA's multi-employer policy, which employer has general supervisory authority over the worksite and may have responsibility to correct hazards?

Correct answer: D. Controlling employer

D. Controlling employer — Correct. A controlling employer has general supervisory authority over the worksite, including the power to correct safety and health violations or require others to correct them.

33. After welding or cutting is completed, how long must a required fire watch remain?

Correct answer: B. At least 30 minutes

B. At least 30 minutes — Correct. When a fire watch is required, it must continue for at least 30 minutes after welding or cutting work is completed.

34. What written program is required for employees with occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials?

Correct answer: C. Exposure control plan

C. Exposure control plan — Correct. The Bloodborne Pathogens standard requires a written exposure control plan that is accessible to employees and updated at least annually.

35. What part of a bloodborne pathogens exposure control plan identifies job classifications and tasks in which occupational exposure may occur?

Correct answer: A. Exposure determination

A. Exposure determination — Correct. The exposure determination identifies job classifications in which all or some employees have occupational exposure and identifies the applicable tasks and procedures.

36. How often must the employer inspect each energy-control procedure under lockout/tagout?

Correct answer: B. At least annually

B. At least annually — Correct. The employer must conduct and certify a periodic inspection of each energy-control procedure at least annually to ensure the procedure and standard requirements are followed.